BUS 521 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer New
Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/BUS-521-Week-9-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-BUS521W9D.htm
Week 9 DQ 1
"Social Entrepreneurship and Social Responsibility" Please respond to the following:
• Specify the role of social responsibility in an entrepreneurship venture. Discuss three to five benefits of social responsibility for the organization and for the community in terms of visibility, positive corporate image, recruitment tool, and the satisfaction of employees and customers.
• Provide at least two examples of a socially responsible act that you have found in your organization or in one with which you are familiar. Assess how both the acts that have impacted the business and the motivation behind them reflect your personal values regarding social responsibility.
Week 9 DQ 2
"Globalization" Please respond to the following:
• Determine the key benefits and drawbacks that an entrepreneur must consider prior to venturing across borders in terms of management and labor, communication, operations, legal issues, and social responsibility. Support your response.
• From the e-Activity, select two companies that are selling goods or services to countries overseas. Next, compare and contrast their effectiveness in terms of customer service and support. Support your response.
Tuesday, 28 February 2017
CIS 532 Week 9 Case Study 3 – Strayer New
CIS 532 Week 9 Case Study 3 – Strayer New
Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/CIS-532-Week-9-Case-Study-3-Strayer-New-CIS532W9C.htm
Case Study 3: Design Scenario, Klamath Paper Products
Read the Design Scenario, Klamath Paper Products case study found in Chapter 11 of the textbook.
Research a Metro Ethernet service that is offered by a vendor in your country (or another country if your country doesn’t have Metro Ethernet).
Write a one to two (1-2) page paper in which you
1. Describe the service in technical terms. Make sure to include pricing information. Note: You may need to contact the provider to obtain this information.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/CIS-532-Week-9-Case-Study-3-Strayer-New-CIS532W9C.htm
Case Study 3: Design Scenario, Klamath Paper Products
Read the Design Scenario, Klamath Paper Products case study found in Chapter 11 of the textbook.
Research a Metro Ethernet service that is offered by a vendor in your country (or another country if your country doesn’t have Metro Ethernet).
Write a one to two (1-2) page paper in which you
1. Describe the service in technical terms. Make sure to include pricing information. Note: You may need to contact the provider to obtain this information.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
BUS 505 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer New
BUS 505 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer New
Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://www.budapp.net/BUS-505-Week-9-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-BUS505W9D.htm
Week 9 DQ 1
"Proposal Reviews" Please respond to the following:
• Evaluate the list of common cost proposal mistakes based on the recommendations in Chapter 15 of the textbook. Select three from the list, and determine the most likely cause of each. Then, recommend a strategy that either the federal government or offerer could take to avoid the mistake in the future.
• Determine which proposal review would be the most effective in gaining a competitive advantage based on the reviews in Chapter 15 and explain why. Create a new review that’s not part of the review process listed in Chapter 15 and describe how the review adds value to the process.
Week 9 DQ 2
"Proposal Production and Improper Business Practice" Please respond to the following:
• Analyze the different types of revisions discussed in Osborne’s “Proposal Reviews” and recommend a completely different review process that would be just as effective or better. Explain your rationale.
• Analyze the statutes (laws) designed to curtail improper practices and conflicts and make at least one recommendation to improve the current system. Explain your rationale.
Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://www.budapp.net/BUS-505-Week-9-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-BUS505W9D.htm
Week 9 DQ 1
"Proposal Reviews" Please respond to the following:
• Evaluate the list of common cost proposal mistakes based on the recommendations in Chapter 15 of the textbook. Select three from the list, and determine the most likely cause of each. Then, recommend a strategy that either the federal government or offerer could take to avoid the mistake in the future.
• Determine which proposal review would be the most effective in gaining a competitive advantage based on the reviews in Chapter 15 and explain why. Create a new review that’s not part of the review process listed in Chapter 15 and describe how the review adds value to the process.
Week 9 DQ 2
"Proposal Production and Improper Business Practice" Please respond to the following:
• Analyze the different types of revisions discussed in Osborne’s “Proposal Reviews” and recommend a completely different review process that would be just as effective or better. Explain your rationale.
• Analyze the statutes (laws) designed to curtail improper practices and conflicts and make at least one recommendation to improve the current system. Explain your rationale.
BUS 365 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer New
BUS 365 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer New
Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
http://budapp.net/BUS-365-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-336.htm
Quiz 8 Chapter 11
Business Intelligence and Decision Support
Multiple Choice
1. Managers rely on business intelligence, data mining, and the decision support systems in order to minimize __________.
a) business processes
b) inventory loss
c) customer dissatisfaction
d) uncertainty
2. What levels of management can today’s BI vendors’ products and software-as-a-service (SaaS) packages support?
a) tactical or operational
b) strategic, tactical, or operational
c) strategic or operational
d) entry and middle
3. What types or sizes of organization can afford today’s BI packages?
a) Fortune 500 and national government agencies only
b) major global corporations only
c) major global and large corporations only
d) all sizes including small and medium enterprises
4. The latest BI tools provide __________, which are reducing managers’ dependence on analysts and tech staff.
a) a high degree of self-sufficiency
b) complex interfaces
c) programming languages
d) query languages
5. DIRECTV’s business model is based on great customer service, attracting new customers, and preventing __________, in which customers switch to a competitor’s service.
a) SCM
b) CRM
c) customer churn
d) customer downsizing
6. As a manager, what type of problems would indicate that you could benefit from a BI solution?
a) Not having the right data
b) Low demand products
c) Slow network speeds
d) High fixed costs
7. From an IT perspective, which of the following best describes BI and BI apps?
a) Stand-alone
b) Support a specific objective
c) Acollection of ISs and technologies
d) Web-based systems designed for for-profits
8. The value of __________ to managers is that these apps pull data from a data warehouse or other data store and then graphically depict the data in meaningful displays.
a) analytics
b) mashups
c) decision support systems
d) dashboards
9. The term __________ started in the music world, but has been adopted by IT to mean an application that combines data from different sources into a new application.
a) analytics
b) mashup
c) visualization
d) dashboard
10. WildTrack is using a BI data analysis solution from SAS to track and monitor their constantly changing __________, which are endangered African rhinos.
a) accounts
b) inventory
c) raw materials
d) supply chain
11. At Jamba Juice, poor quality data was damaging profits so traditional BI was deployed at the __________ level; and operational BI was deployed at the __________ level.
a) corporate; store
b) transaction; product
c) accounting; marketing
d) strategic; regional
12. __________ BI apps use real-time or near real-time data in order to support line managers who need to monitor performance of his or her business processes.
a) Strategic
b) Operational
c) Tactical
d) Traditional
13. In a tight economy with high interest and unemployment rates, any business project requiring a large financial investment needs to __________.
a) be economically justified
b) be approved by all senior managers
c) provide a competitive edge
d) improve operational efficiency
14. When you need to justify an IT investment, a(n) __________ is required to document your initiative and to move it through the approval and funding process.
a) budget
b) business case
c) ROI
d) payback analysis
15. Which of the following is not one of the three key business goals used to sell management on the need for a BI consolidation program?
a) Lowering total cost of ownership
b) Enabling businesspeople to analyze information
c) Increasing productivity
d) Improving consistency of and trust in information and analytics
16. Which is not a characteristic or benefit of BI?
a) helps eliminate blindspots
b) integrates data silos
c) presents data in visual displays
d) implemented by end-users
17. An advantage of __________ is that they are a way to access a particular view of data or to analyze what’s happening.
a) OLAP
b) data mining
c) predictive analytics
d) queries
18. Three core functions of __________ are query, reporting, and analytics.
a) BI
b) OLTP
c) data warehousing
d) OLAP
19. Data mining and __________ tools are used to find relationships that are not obvious, or to predict what is going to happen.
a) DSS
b) reporting
c) predictive analytic
d) queries
20. After data has been loaded into a data warehouse, data tables can be linked to form __________, which is another term for multidimensional databases.
a) data cubes
b) relational databases
c) OLAP
d) ETL
21. Why does UPS use data analysis and visualization as part of its tactical and strategic planning process?
a) Delivery time is mission-critical
b) Workers need to quickly adjust operations as new information is received
c) To build a single version of the truth
d) a and b
22. The IT architecture that is needed for BI depends on each of the following factors except:
a) the number of event-driven alerts
b) the number and type of data sources or ISs
c) how much data extraction and transformation needs to be done
d) the reporting timeliness that’s needed
23. Planning a BI implementation is a complex project and includes typical project management steps. Therefore, the first step in the BI planning process is to _____.
a) define the scope
b) define the budget
c) identify the resources needed
d) define the timeline
24. Extracted data, particularly when it’s extracted from multiple sources, is not in usable format. Because of this problem, __________ tools have to map the field names of the same data types; and then reformat the data itself into a standard format.
a) data transformation and loading
b) data extraction and transformation
c) data query and reporting
d) data visualization
25. __________ is the ability to get to data details at several levels, which can be done by a series of menus or by query.
a) Ad hoc analysis
b) Key performance indicator
c) Critical success factor
d) Drill down
26. An advantage of more advanced dashboards is that they present KPIs, trends, and exceptions using __________.
a) Adobe Flash animation
b) Excel
c) Powerpoint
d) PDF
27. The strategic objective of __________ is to optimize the overall performance of an enterprise.
a) analytics
b) business performance management (BPM)
c) dashboards
d) reporting
28. Today, BI ranks near the top of many companies' IT purchase plans. What is the underlying reason for this interest in BI?
a) Costs and complexity of BI software have dropped significantly.
b) Managers are more IT and database literate.
c) Inflation and energy prices are cutting into profit margins and consumers' disposable income.
d) All of the above
29. Text from documents, electronic communications, and e-commerce activities needs to be codified, which is typically done with __________.
a) HTML (Hypertext Markup Language)
b) Java
c) C++
d) XML (eXtensible Markup Language)
30. In a __________, you are trying to find what others have prepared. With __________, you are trying to discover new patterns that may not be obvious or known.
a) query; Web mining
b) query; data mining
c) search; text mining
d) search: reporting
31. __________ is used to understand customer online behavior, evaluate a Web site's effectiveness, and quantify the success of a marketing campaign.
a) Text analytics
b) Visualization
c) Clickstream
d) Webmining
32. Which is not one of the characteristics or objectives of data mining?
a) The miner is often an end user.
b) Business sections that most extensively use data mining are manufacturing.
c) Data mining tools are readily combined with spreadsheets.
d) Sophisticated tools help to remove the information buried in corporate files.
33. Data mining is important in detecting __________, especially in insurance claims and credit card use.
a) fraudulent behavior
b) errors
c) prospective customers
d) alerts
34. Managers’ roles can be put into three categories based on Mintzberg. Which is not one of those categories?
a) Interpersonal role
b) Informational role
c) Strategic role
d) Decisional role
35. Decision makers go through four systematic phases. Which is the first phase?
a) choice
b) design
c) intelligence
d) knowledge
36. Managers rely on decision models because they __________ the situation or problem.
a) simplify
b) detail
c) solve
d) explain
37. Planning new services to be offered, hiring an executive, predicting markets, or choosing a set of research and development projects for next year are examples of __________ decisions.
a) structured
b) semistructured
c) unstructured
d) operational
38. Formal business procedures, cost minimization, profit maximization and algorithms, such as those used by eHarmony to match its members, are example of __________ decisions.
a) structured
b) semistructured
c) unstructured
d) operational
39. A properly designed __________ is an interactive application to help decision makers compile data and then analyze the data using business models.
a) TPS
b) MIS
c) SOP
d) DSS
40. A key benefit of DSSs is that they make it easy for manager to perform __________, which is the study of the impact that changes in one or more parts of a model have on the outcome.
a) sensitivity analysis
b) comparisons
c) pivots
d) goal seeking
41. Basic components of a DSS include each of the following except:
a) database
b) model base
c) user interface and users
d) network
42. Since the 1960s, there have been five major generations, or cycles, of computing. Which represents those generations in order?
a) mainframes, miniframes, PCs, desktop Internet computing, mobile computing
b) minicomputers, servers, PCs, wired computing,
Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
http://budapp.net/BUS-365-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-336.htm
Quiz 8 Chapter 11
Business Intelligence and Decision Support
Multiple Choice
1. Managers rely on business intelligence, data mining, and the decision support systems in order to minimize __________.
a) business processes
b) inventory loss
c) customer dissatisfaction
d) uncertainty
2. What levels of management can today’s BI vendors’ products and software-as-a-service (SaaS) packages support?
a) tactical or operational
b) strategic, tactical, or operational
c) strategic or operational
d) entry and middle
3. What types or sizes of organization can afford today’s BI packages?
a) Fortune 500 and national government agencies only
b) major global corporations only
c) major global and large corporations only
d) all sizes including small and medium enterprises
4. The latest BI tools provide __________, which are reducing managers’ dependence on analysts and tech staff.
a) a high degree of self-sufficiency
b) complex interfaces
c) programming languages
d) query languages
5. DIRECTV’s business model is based on great customer service, attracting new customers, and preventing __________, in which customers switch to a competitor’s service.
a) SCM
b) CRM
c) customer churn
d) customer downsizing
6. As a manager, what type of problems would indicate that you could benefit from a BI solution?
a) Not having the right data
b) Low demand products
c) Slow network speeds
d) High fixed costs
7. From an IT perspective, which of the following best describes BI and BI apps?
a) Stand-alone
b) Support a specific objective
c) Acollection of ISs and technologies
d) Web-based systems designed for for-profits
8. The value of __________ to managers is that these apps pull data from a data warehouse or other data store and then graphically depict the data in meaningful displays.
a) analytics
b) mashups
c) decision support systems
d) dashboards
9. The term __________ started in the music world, but has been adopted by IT to mean an application that combines data from different sources into a new application.
a) analytics
b) mashup
c) visualization
d) dashboard
10. WildTrack is using a BI data analysis solution from SAS to track and monitor their constantly changing __________, which are endangered African rhinos.
a) accounts
b) inventory
c) raw materials
d) supply chain
11. At Jamba Juice, poor quality data was damaging profits so traditional BI was deployed at the __________ level; and operational BI was deployed at the __________ level.
a) corporate; store
b) transaction; product
c) accounting; marketing
d) strategic; regional
12. __________ BI apps use real-time or near real-time data in order to support line managers who need to monitor performance of his or her business processes.
a) Strategic
b) Operational
c) Tactical
d) Traditional
13. In a tight economy with high interest and unemployment rates, any business project requiring a large financial investment needs to __________.
a) be economically justified
b) be approved by all senior managers
c) provide a competitive edge
d) improve operational efficiency
14. When you need to justify an IT investment, a(n) __________ is required to document your initiative and to move it through the approval and funding process.
a) budget
b) business case
c) ROI
d) payback analysis
15. Which of the following is not one of the three key business goals used to sell management on the need for a BI consolidation program?
a) Lowering total cost of ownership
b) Enabling businesspeople to analyze information
c) Increasing productivity
d) Improving consistency of and trust in information and analytics
16. Which is not a characteristic or benefit of BI?
a) helps eliminate blindspots
b) integrates data silos
c) presents data in visual displays
d) implemented by end-users
17. An advantage of __________ is that they are a way to access a particular view of data or to analyze what’s happening.
a) OLAP
b) data mining
c) predictive analytics
d) queries
18. Three core functions of __________ are query, reporting, and analytics.
a) BI
b) OLTP
c) data warehousing
d) OLAP
19. Data mining and __________ tools are used to find relationships that are not obvious, or to predict what is going to happen.
a) DSS
b) reporting
c) predictive analytic
d) queries
20. After data has been loaded into a data warehouse, data tables can be linked to form __________, which is another term for multidimensional databases.
a) data cubes
b) relational databases
c) OLAP
d) ETL
21. Why does UPS use data analysis and visualization as part of its tactical and strategic planning process?
a) Delivery time is mission-critical
b) Workers need to quickly adjust operations as new information is received
c) To build a single version of the truth
d) a and b
22. The IT architecture that is needed for BI depends on each of the following factors except:
a) the number of event-driven alerts
b) the number and type of data sources or ISs
c) how much data extraction and transformation needs to be done
d) the reporting timeliness that’s needed
23. Planning a BI implementation is a complex project and includes typical project management steps. Therefore, the first step in the BI planning process is to _____.
a) define the scope
b) define the budget
c) identify the resources needed
d) define the timeline
24. Extracted data, particularly when it’s extracted from multiple sources, is not in usable format. Because of this problem, __________ tools have to map the field names of the same data types; and then reformat the data itself into a standard format.
a) data transformation and loading
b) data extraction and transformation
c) data query and reporting
d) data visualization
25. __________ is the ability to get to data details at several levels, which can be done by a series of menus or by query.
a) Ad hoc analysis
b) Key performance indicator
c) Critical success factor
d) Drill down
26. An advantage of more advanced dashboards is that they present KPIs, trends, and exceptions using __________.
a) Adobe Flash animation
b) Excel
c) Powerpoint
d) PDF
27. The strategic objective of __________ is to optimize the overall performance of an enterprise.
a) analytics
b) business performance management (BPM)
c) dashboards
d) reporting
28. Today, BI ranks near the top of many companies' IT purchase plans. What is the underlying reason for this interest in BI?
a) Costs and complexity of BI software have dropped significantly.
b) Managers are more IT and database literate.
c) Inflation and energy prices are cutting into profit margins and consumers' disposable income.
d) All of the above
29. Text from documents, electronic communications, and e-commerce activities needs to be codified, which is typically done with __________.
a) HTML (Hypertext Markup Language)
b) Java
c) C++
d) XML (eXtensible Markup Language)
30. In a __________, you are trying to find what others have prepared. With __________, you are trying to discover new patterns that may not be obvious or known.
a) query; Web mining
b) query; data mining
c) search; text mining
d) search: reporting
31. __________ is used to understand customer online behavior, evaluate a Web site's effectiveness, and quantify the success of a marketing campaign.
a) Text analytics
b) Visualization
c) Clickstream
d) Webmining
32. Which is not one of the characteristics or objectives of data mining?
a) The miner is often an end user.
b) Business sections that most extensively use data mining are manufacturing.
c) Data mining tools are readily combined with spreadsheets.
d) Sophisticated tools help to remove the information buried in corporate files.
33. Data mining is important in detecting __________, especially in insurance claims and credit card use.
a) fraudulent behavior
b) errors
c) prospective customers
d) alerts
34. Managers’ roles can be put into three categories based on Mintzberg. Which is not one of those categories?
a) Interpersonal role
b) Informational role
c) Strategic role
d) Decisional role
35. Decision makers go through four systematic phases. Which is the first phase?
a) choice
b) design
c) intelligence
d) knowledge
36. Managers rely on decision models because they __________ the situation or problem.
a) simplify
b) detail
c) solve
d) explain
37. Planning new services to be offered, hiring an executive, predicting markets, or choosing a set of research and development projects for next year are examples of __________ decisions.
a) structured
b) semistructured
c) unstructured
d) operational
38. Formal business procedures, cost minimization, profit maximization and algorithms, such as those used by eHarmony to match its members, are example of __________ decisions.
a) structured
b) semistructured
c) unstructured
d) operational
39. A properly designed __________ is an interactive application to help decision makers compile data and then analyze the data using business models.
a) TPS
b) MIS
c) SOP
d) DSS
40. A key benefit of DSSs is that they make it easy for manager to perform __________, which is the study of the impact that changes in one or more parts of a model have on the outcome.
a) sensitivity analysis
b) comparisons
c) pivots
d) goal seeking
41. Basic components of a DSS include each of the following except:
a) database
b) model base
c) user interface and users
d) network
42. Since the 1960s, there have been five major generations, or cycles, of computing. Which represents those generations in order?
a) mainframes, miniframes, PCs, desktop Internet computing, mobile computing
b) minicomputers, servers, PCs, wired computing,
CIS 524 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer
CIS 524 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer
Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/CIS-524-Week-9-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-CIS524W9D.htm
Week 9 DQ 1
"Searching Textual Documents" Please respond to the following:
• Your company has been hired to design a product that will provide searches of textual documents and database querying. Your design team has not developed a product like this before. Examine the challenges associated with searching in textual documents and database querying. Describe how the five-stage search framework shared in Chapter 13 could be used to overcome those challenges.
• Assess current multimedia document search techniques and suggest three techniques to improve multimedia search experiences. Explain why you chose to recommend each of the techniques you suggested.
Week 9 DQ 2
"Advanced Filtering" Please respond to the following:
• Describe the most effective advanced filtering and search interface. Argue why the interface you chose is more effective than others, and describe who benefits most from the interface you are describing.
• From the e-Activity, Google has been the dominant market leader for search engines for the past several years, despite a fairly basic interface and competition from competitors like Microsoft and Yahoo. Discuss reasons why Google has been able to maintain such a high market share. Also, suggest some ideas for a search engine that would be able to take market share away from Google.
Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/CIS-524-Week-9-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-CIS524W9D.htm
Week 9 DQ 1
"Searching Textual Documents" Please respond to the following:
• Your company has been hired to design a product that will provide searches of textual documents and database querying. Your design team has not developed a product like this before. Examine the challenges associated with searching in textual documents and database querying. Describe how the five-stage search framework shared in Chapter 13 could be used to overcome those challenges.
• Assess current multimedia document search techniques and suggest three techniques to improve multimedia search experiences. Explain why you chose to recommend each of the techniques you suggested.
Week 9 DQ 2
"Advanced Filtering" Please respond to the following:
• Describe the most effective advanced filtering and search interface. Argue why the interface you chose is more effective than others, and describe who benefits most from the interface you are describing.
• From the e-Activity, Google has been the dominant market leader for search engines for the past several years, despite a fairly basic interface and competition from competitors like Microsoft and Yahoo. Discuss reasons why Google has been able to maintain such a high market share. Also, suggest some ideas for a search engine that would be able to take market share away from Google.
ACC 564 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW
ACC 564 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW
Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/ACC-564-Week-9-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-ACC564W9D.htm
Week 9 Discussion 1
"Systems Analysis" Please respond to the following:
Implementing a new AIS system could prove to be beneficial or detrimental to an organization’s IT infrastructure. Assess the risks associated with integrating a new AIS system and suggest what management can do to minimize those risks.
You have been selected as the change agent for the implementation of a new AIS system that will ultimately affect the way all employees complete their daily tasks. The new AIS system will also require online approvals for all source documents. This will result in significant cost savings for the firm; however, in the past, employees have been resistant to radical changes such as this. Evaluate the risks and rewards of such a move by the firm. Provide specific examples to support your response.
Week 9 Discussion 2
"AIS" Please respond to the following:
You are part of a project management team evaluating accounting software packages that could be used by S&S (i.e., the case company referenced in Chapters 1 through 4), which would incorporate its four basic transaction cycles. Suggest five factors that the team should consider when selecting the package. Rank the factors in order of importance, and then justify your ranking.
From the e-Activity, evaluate two different software packages and propose how you would promote one package over the other to the management committee. Provide specific examples to support your response.
Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/ACC-564-Week-9-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-ACC564W9D.htm
Week 9 Discussion 1
"Systems Analysis" Please respond to the following:
Implementing a new AIS system could prove to be beneficial or detrimental to an organization’s IT infrastructure. Assess the risks associated with integrating a new AIS system and suggest what management can do to minimize those risks.
You have been selected as the change agent for the implementation of a new AIS system that will ultimately affect the way all employees complete their daily tasks. The new AIS system will also require online approvals for all source documents. This will result in significant cost savings for the firm; however, in the past, employees have been resistant to radical changes such as this. Evaluate the risks and rewards of such a move by the firm. Provide specific examples to support your response.
Week 9 Discussion 2
"AIS" Please respond to the following:
You are part of a project management team evaluating accounting software packages that could be used by S&S (i.e., the case company referenced in Chapters 1 through 4), which would incorporate its four basic transaction cycles. Suggest five factors that the team should consider when selecting the package. Rank the factors in order of importance, and then justify your ranking.
From the e-Activity, evaluate two different software packages and propose how you would promote one package over the other to the management committee. Provide specific examples to support your response.
ECO 302 Week 9 Quiz - Strayer
ECO 302 Week 9 Quiz - Strayer
Click on The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
http://budapp.net/ECO-302-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-356.htm
Chapter 14 and 15
TRUE/FALSE
1. When a country has a deficit, its debt is growing.
2. A pay as you go social security system raises the capital stock.
3. If government budget is in deficit, then real government saving is in surplus.
4. If the government runs a deficit, households will feel wealthier.
5. A budget deficit caused by changing labor income taxes changes the labor and production.
6. The debt-to-GDP ratio typically rises during a recession.
7. The major peaks in the ratio of public debt to GDP in the U.S. reflect expenditures on Social Security.
8. Real national saving equals net investment.
9. Real government saving is positive when the real public debt increases.
10. If government expediture exceeds government revenue, then the government has a budget surplus.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The governments sources of funds include:
a. taxes. c. borrowing.
b. printing money. d. all of the above.
2. The governments sources of funds include:
a. taxes. c. paying interest on past bonds.
b. government purchases. d. all of the above.
3. The governments sources of funds include:
a. transfer payments. c. paying interest on the government debt.
b. printing money. d. all of the above.
4. The governments sources of funds include:
a. government purchases. c. borrowing.
b. transfer payments. d. all of the above.
5. The governments uses of funds include:
a. government purchases. c. paying interest on the past government debt.
b. transfer payments. d. all of the above.
6. The governments uses of funds include:
a. government purchases. c. printing money.
b. borrowing. d. all of the above.
7. The governments uses of funds include:
a. printing money. c. taxes.
b. transfer payments. d. all of the above.
8. The governments uses of funds include:
a. borrowing. c. paying interest on the past government debt.
b. printing money. d. all of the above.
9. A balanced government budget is one where:
a. government purchases equal taxes. c. the governments real savings is zero.
b. government debt is zero. d. all of the above.
10. Total bond holding of all households is Bgt because:
a. the quantity of all private bonds held by the public is zero. c. the public views government bonds as less risky than private bonds.
b. the quantity of all government bonds held by the public is zero. d. the public views private bonds as less risky than government bonds.
11. Total bond holding of all households is equal to
a. the quantity of all private bonds. c. the quantity of all private bonds plus all government bonds.
b. the quantity of all government bonds. d. the quantity of all private bonds minus all government bonds.
12. If money and the price level are constant, then the government’s real budget deficit is:
a. (Bgt - Bgt-1)/P. c. (Bt + Bgt)/P.
b. Bgt/P. d. none of the above.
13. If money and the price level are constant, then the government’s real budget debt is:
a. (Bgt - Bgt-1)/P. c. (Bt + Bgt)/P.
b. Bgt/P. d. none of the above.
14. If the government reduces taxes by $1 this year without raising taxes or printing more money, then
a. future tax liabilities will rise by $1 plus the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing. c. future tax liabilities will fall by $1 plus the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing.
b. future tax liabilities will rise by $1 less the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing. d. future tax liabilities will fall by $1 less the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing.
15. Ricardian equivalence implies that a government budget deficit:
a. increases current consumption. c. reduces national saving.
b. increases future tax liabilities. d. all of the above.
16. Ricardian equivalence holds:
a. only for year to year changes in the governments budget. c. only with a government deficit not a surplus.
b. no matter how long until the bonds are to be paid off. d. only with a government surplus not a deficit.
17. A strategic budget deficit is designed to:
a. increase GDP. c. constrain the behavior of future governments.
b. increase economic activity. d. all of the above.
18. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it:
a. reduces the GDP in the long run. c. reduces the capital stock in the long run.
b. reduces investment. d. all of the above.
19. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it:
a. reduces the GDP in the long run. c. increases the capital stock in the long run.
b. increases investment. d. all of the above.
20. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it:
a. increases the GDP in the long run. c. increases the capital stock in the long run.
b. reduces investment. d. all of the above.
21. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it:
a. increases the GDP in the long run. c. reduces the capital stock in the long run.
b. increases investment. d. all of the above.
22. The standard view of the budget deficit is that a deficit:
a. does not affect the economy in the long run. c. does not affect the economy in the short run.
b. and the public debt are a burden on the economy. d. encourages economic growth.
23. Households may feel wealthier due to a tax cut, if:
a. they are very concerned about future generations. c. they are using an infinite planning horizon.
b. they expect the bonds created by the deficit to be paid off after their lifetime. d. they plan to leave a bequest to their heirs.
24. Households may feel wealthier due to a tax cut, if:
a. they are not able to borrow as much against future earnings as they wish. c. they care a lot about future generations.
b. they are not able to lend present earnings as much as they wish. d. they plan to leave a bequest to their heirs.
25. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. reduces current national savings. c. reduces the future capital stock.
b. reduces investment. d. all of the above.
26. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. reduces current national savings. c. raises the future capital stock.
b. raises investment. d. all of the above.
27. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. raises current national savings. c. raises the future capital stock.
b. reduces investment. d. all of the above.
28. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. raises current national savings. c. reduces the future capital stock.
b. raises investment. d. all of the above.
29. If households ignore effects on future generations when a pay as you go social security system starts, the then elderly:
a. have a positive income effect on their consumption. c. receive low returns on any taxes paid into the system.
b. receive benefits that in present value is less the present value of their contributions. d. all of the above.
30. If households ignore effects on future generations, when a pay as you go social security system starts, the then elderly:
a. have a negative income effect on their consumption. c. receive low returns on any taxes paid into the system.
b. receive benefits that in present value is greater than the present value of their contributions to the system. d. all of the above.
31. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. increases consumption. c. reduces national saving.
b. reduces the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above.
32. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. increases consumption. c. increases national saving.
b. increases the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above.
33. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. decreases consumption. c. raises national saving.
b. reduces the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above.
34. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. decreases consumption. c. reduces national saving.
b. increases the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above.
35. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. reduces investment. c. reduces private saving.
b. reduces GDP in the long run. d. all of the above.
36. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. reduces investment. c. increases private saving.
b. increases GDP in the long run. d. all of the above.
37. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. raises investment. c. raises private saving.
b. reduces GDP in the long run. d. all of the above.
38. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. raises investment. c. reduces private saving.
b. increases GDP in the long run. d. all of the above.
39. A pay as you go social security system only increase consumption and reduces investment, if:
a. households leave bequests. c. if the planning horizon is overlapping generations.
b. if households neglect the adverse affects on their descendants. d. households increase their savings.
40. If currently alive households take full account of the negative affects of a pay as you go social security system on their descendants, then the:
a. effects are magnified. c. effects are exponential.
b. effects are nil. d. effects are unchanged.
Click on The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
http://budapp.net/ECO-302-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-356.htm
Chapter 14 and 15
TRUE/FALSE
1. When a country has a deficit, its debt is growing.
2. A pay as you go social security system raises the capital stock.
3. If government budget is in deficit, then real government saving is in surplus.
4. If the government runs a deficit, households will feel wealthier.
5. A budget deficit caused by changing labor income taxes changes the labor and production.
6. The debt-to-GDP ratio typically rises during a recession.
7. The major peaks in the ratio of public debt to GDP in the U.S. reflect expenditures on Social Security.
8. Real national saving equals net investment.
9. Real government saving is positive when the real public debt increases.
10. If government expediture exceeds government revenue, then the government has a budget surplus.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The governments sources of funds include:
a. taxes. c. borrowing.
b. printing money. d. all of the above.
2. The governments sources of funds include:
a. taxes. c. paying interest on past bonds.
b. government purchases. d. all of the above.
3. The governments sources of funds include:
a. transfer payments. c. paying interest on the government debt.
b. printing money. d. all of the above.
4. The governments sources of funds include:
a. government purchases. c. borrowing.
b. transfer payments. d. all of the above.
5. The governments uses of funds include:
a. government purchases. c. paying interest on the past government debt.
b. transfer payments. d. all of the above.
6. The governments uses of funds include:
a. government purchases. c. printing money.
b. borrowing. d. all of the above.
7. The governments uses of funds include:
a. printing money. c. taxes.
b. transfer payments. d. all of the above.
8. The governments uses of funds include:
a. borrowing. c. paying interest on the past government debt.
b. printing money. d. all of the above.
9. A balanced government budget is one where:
a. government purchases equal taxes. c. the governments real savings is zero.
b. government debt is zero. d. all of the above.
10. Total bond holding of all households is Bgt because:
a. the quantity of all private bonds held by the public is zero. c. the public views government bonds as less risky than private bonds.
b. the quantity of all government bonds held by the public is zero. d. the public views private bonds as less risky than government bonds.
11. Total bond holding of all households is equal to
a. the quantity of all private bonds. c. the quantity of all private bonds plus all government bonds.
b. the quantity of all government bonds. d. the quantity of all private bonds minus all government bonds.
12. If money and the price level are constant, then the government’s real budget deficit is:
a. (Bgt - Bgt-1)/P. c. (Bt + Bgt)/P.
b. Bgt/P. d. none of the above.
13. If money and the price level are constant, then the government’s real budget debt is:
a. (Bgt - Bgt-1)/P. c. (Bt + Bgt)/P.
b. Bgt/P. d. none of the above.
14. If the government reduces taxes by $1 this year without raising taxes or printing more money, then
a. future tax liabilities will rise by $1 plus the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing. c. future tax liabilities will fall by $1 plus the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing.
b. future tax liabilities will rise by $1 less the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing. d. future tax liabilities will fall by $1 less the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing.
15. Ricardian equivalence implies that a government budget deficit:
a. increases current consumption. c. reduces national saving.
b. increases future tax liabilities. d. all of the above.
16. Ricardian equivalence holds:
a. only for year to year changes in the governments budget. c. only with a government deficit not a surplus.
b. no matter how long until the bonds are to be paid off. d. only with a government surplus not a deficit.
17. A strategic budget deficit is designed to:
a. increase GDP. c. constrain the behavior of future governments.
b. increase economic activity. d. all of the above.
18. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it:
a. reduces the GDP in the long run. c. reduces the capital stock in the long run.
b. reduces investment. d. all of the above.
19. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it:
a. reduces the GDP in the long run. c. increases the capital stock in the long run.
b. increases investment. d. all of the above.
20. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it:
a. increases the GDP in the long run. c. increases the capital stock in the long run.
b. reduces investment. d. all of the above.
21. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it:
a. increases the GDP in the long run. c. reduces the capital stock in the long run.
b. increases investment. d. all of the above.
22. The standard view of the budget deficit is that a deficit:
a. does not affect the economy in the long run. c. does not affect the economy in the short run.
b. and the public debt are a burden on the economy. d. encourages economic growth.
23. Households may feel wealthier due to a tax cut, if:
a. they are very concerned about future generations. c. they are using an infinite planning horizon.
b. they expect the bonds created by the deficit to be paid off after their lifetime. d. they plan to leave a bequest to their heirs.
24. Households may feel wealthier due to a tax cut, if:
a. they are not able to borrow as much against future earnings as they wish. c. they care a lot about future generations.
b. they are not able to lend present earnings as much as they wish. d. they plan to leave a bequest to their heirs.
25. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. reduces current national savings. c. reduces the future capital stock.
b. reduces investment. d. all of the above.
26. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. reduces current national savings. c. raises the future capital stock.
b. raises investment. d. all of the above.
27. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. raises current national savings. c. raises the future capital stock.
b. reduces investment. d. all of the above.
28. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. raises current national savings. c. reduces the future capital stock.
b. raises investment. d. all of the above.
29. If households ignore effects on future generations when a pay as you go social security system starts, the then elderly:
a. have a positive income effect on their consumption. c. receive low returns on any taxes paid into the system.
b. receive benefits that in present value is less the present value of their contributions. d. all of the above.
30. If households ignore effects on future generations, when a pay as you go social security system starts, the then elderly:
a. have a negative income effect on their consumption. c. receive low returns on any taxes paid into the system.
b. receive benefits that in present value is greater than the present value of their contributions to the system. d. all of the above.
31. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. increases consumption. c. reduces national saving.
b. reduces the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above.
32. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. increases consumption. c. increases national saving.
b. increases the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above.
33. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. decreases consumption. c. raises national saving.
b. reduces the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above.
34. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. decreases consumption. c. reduces national saving.
b. increases the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above.
35. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. reduces investment. c. reduces private saving.
b. reduces GDP in the long run. d. all of the above.
36. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. reduces investment. c. increases private saving.
b. increases GDP in the long run. d. all of the above.
37. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. raises investment. c. raises private saving.
b. reduces GDP in the long run. d. all of the above.
38. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system:
a. raises investment. c. reduces private saving.
b. increases GDP in the long run. d. all of the above.
39. A pay as you go social security system only increase consumption and reduces investment, if:
a. households leave bequests. c. if the planning horizon is overlapping generations.
b. if households neglect the adverse affects on their descendants. d. households increase their savings.
40. If currently alive households take full account of the negative affects of a pay as you go social security system on their descendants, then the:
a. effects are magnified. c. effects are exponential.
b. effects are nil. d. effects are unchanged.
BUS 325 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer New
BUS 325 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer New
Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
http://budapp.net/BUS-325-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-317.htm
Quiz 8 Chapter 8
International Compensation
TRUE/FALSE
1. Increased complexities in global pay include the decreased use of outsourced activities and subsequent labor pricing needs.
2. The competing objectives of the international firm and the expatriate employee are fundamentally different from that which exists in a domestic environment.
3. The term “base salary” acquires a somewhat different meaning when employees go abroad.
4. Base salary must be paid in local country currency.
5. Foreign service inducements are usually made in the form of a percentage of salary and usually amount to 30 to 60 percent of base pay.
6. The provision of a relocation allowance implies that employees should be entitled to maintain their home country living standards.
7. Many employers cover the expense of one or more trips back to the home country each year.
8. The provision of a cost-of-living allowance implies that the cost-of-living in the foreign assignment is higher than at home.
9. PCNs and TCNs do not usually receive the same treatment concerning educational expenses.
10. Pension plans are very easy to deal with from country-to-country, as national practices are similar
11. The Going Rate Approach is based on local market rates.
12. With the Going Rate Approach, if the location is in a low-pay country, the multinational usually supplements base pay with additional benefits and payments.
13. The Balance Sheet Approach links the base salary for PCNs and TCN to the salary structure of the relevant home country.
14. Generally the developed countries tend to rank as more expensive than developing countries because their wage costs are higher.
15. It is a common practice for MNEs to use a home-country balance sheet approach for TCNs except in the USA.
16. “Universal” pay systems may be preferred by corporate pay planners rather than having to deal with myriad “Local” systems.
17. Firms will never provide standardized “core” pay in the global firm.
18. Paying TCNs according to their home-country base salary can be less expensive than paying all expatriates on a PCN scale.
19. MNEs using the Balance Sheet approach to international compensation are constantly updating compensation packages for cost of living changes.
20. Obtaining up to date information on international living costs is a constant issue for multinationals.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Successfully managing compensation and benefits in a multinational context:
a. Requires knowledge of employment and taxation law, customs, environment, and employment practices of many foreign countries
b. Requires the use of both the going rate approach and the balance sheet approach to international compensation
c. Does not require familiarity with currency fluctuations
d. Does not require the use of any kind of base salary
2. In a domestic context, base salary:
a. Is the primary component of a package of allowances
b. Includes cost-of-living allowance
c. Denotes the amount of cash compensation serving as a benchmark for other compensation elements
d. Is determined by using the Going Rate Approach
3. Which of the following is the foundation block for international compensation whether the employee is a PCN or TCN?
a. Tax protection
b. Foreign service inducement/hardship premium
c. Allowances
d. Base salary
4. Which of the following involves a payment to compensate for differences in expenditures between the home country and the foreign country?
a. Home leave allowance c. Cost-of-living allowance
b. Housing allowance d. Relocation allowance
5. The provision of a housing allowance:
a. Is not often assessed on a case-by-case basis
b. Does not ever include a fixed housing allowance
c. Implies higher living standards
d. May include company-provided housing
6. The purpose of home leave allowances is to:
a. Compensate for differences in expenditures between the home country and the foreign country
b. Give expatriates the opportunity to renew family and business ties, thereby helping them to avoid adjustment problems when they are repatriated
c. Cover moving, shipping and storage charges, and temporary living expenses
d. Give employees a chance to leave their homes to tour their potential foreign assignment
7. Relocation allowances:
a. Do not usually cover temporary living expenses
b. Usually cover temporary living expenses
c. Cover discretionary items
d. Do not usually cover moving
8. MNEs generally pay allowances in order to:
a. Change the living standards of employees
b. Encourage employees to take international assignments
c. Avoid certain taxes
d. Discourage employees from taking international assignments
9. Most US PCNs typically:
a. Remain under their home country benefit plan
b. Adopt US benefit plans
c. Take advantage of both their home countries’ and the US’s benefit plans
d. Do not receive benefits, only allowances
10. Firms need to address many issues when considering benefits, including:
a. Whether or not to maintain expatriates in home-country programs
b. Whether or not to use the Going Rate Approach
c. Whether or not to use the Balance Sheet Approach
d. Whether or not expatriates should receive any social security benefits
11. Benefits that may be provided to employees include:
a. Base pay c. Vacations and special leave
b. Tax protection d. Cost-of-living allowances
12. The base salary for an international transfer is linked to the salary structure in the host country using:
a. Tax protection c. The Going Rate Approach
b. Tax equalization d. The Balance Sheet Approach
13. The Balance Sheet Approach:
a. Is the most widely used approach to international compensation
b. Relies on survey comparisons
c. Creates potential re-entry problems
d. Creates variation between expatriates of the same nationality in different countries
14. An advantage of the Going Rate Approach is that:
a. There is variation between assignments for the same employee
b. There is equality in pay with local nationals
c. There is equity between assignments
d. It results in fewer taxes
15. A disadvantage of the Balance Sheet Approach is that:
a. There can be variations between assignments for the same employee
b. There can be variations between expatriates of the same nationality in different countries
c. There may be potential re-entry problems
d. It can result in great disparities between expatriates of different nationalities and between expatriates and local nationals
16. The four categories of outlay incurred by expatriates that are incorporated in the Balance Sheet Approach are:
a. Goods and services, housing, income tax and reserve
b. Housing, base pay, goods and services and taxation
c. Taxation, housing, exchange rate and goods and services
d. Reserve, housing, taxation and evaluation cost
17. The most common taxation policy used by multinationals is:
a. Tax protection c. Tax equalization
b. Parent country national taxation d. No taxation
18. “Globals” are:
a. Expatriates c. Commuters
b. Permanent international assignees d. International travelers
19. Many multinationals respond to complexity of tax issues across countries by:
a. Ignoring all tax issues except for the Parent company
b. Retaining the services of international accounting firms
c. Having an in-house tax division to prepare all tax related forms and addresses all country tax issues
d. Leaving all tax issues up to the employee
20. A firm-external theory of job worth is influenced by:
a. Behavioral theory c. Cultural and institutional perspectives
b. Level of internationalization d. Local market conditions
21. Pay strategy may be defined in terms of a series of interlocking strategic choices on:
a. Basis of pay, units of aggregations, patterns of variation in pay and job evaluations
b. Industry/competition, size of organization, organizational structure and job evaluations
c. Employment relationships, corporate culture, basis of pay and job evaluation
d. Local market conditions, laws, basis of pay and job evaluations
22. An external, environmental norm in global pay strategy would be:
a. Traditional employment relationships c. Resource-based view of the firm
b. Labor unions and educational systems d. Institutional economics
23. Performance verses seniority is a strategic choice of pay strategy considered in:
a. Job evaluation system c. Internal equity
b. Units of aggregation d. Basis of pay
24. In a recent cost of living survey, the most expensive city to live in is:
a. London c. Zurich
b. New York d. Tokyo
25. The Top Five highest taxation countries are:
a. Netherlands, Belgium, Germany, Australia and Italy
b. USA, Netherlands, France, Germany and China
c. China, Australia, Belgium, France and Malaysia
d. Taiwan, France, Netherland, Belgium and Australia
26. International compensation is characterized by:
a. Complexity, culture and corporation c. Complexity, challenges and choices
b. Complexity, cultural challenges d. Complexity, cooperation and competition
27. Global pay practices consist of firm level decisions about:
a. Pay mix, pay level and standardization versus localization
b. Pay levels, pay mix and hierarchy versus egalitarian basis
c. Pay levels, cultural norms and pay bases
d. Pay mix, pay culture and standardization versus localization
28. International compensation is:
a. On a practical level, simpler than a domestic pay system
b. Not considered critical for most multinational enterprises
c. Still essentially equivalent to the topic of expatriate pay practices in all multinational enterpris
Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
http://budapp.net/BUS-325-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-317.htm
Quiz 8 Chapter 8
International Compensation
TRUE/FALSE
1. Increased complexities in global pay include the decreased use of outsourced activities and subsequent labor pricing needs.
2. The competing objectives of the international firm and the expatriate employee are fundamentally different from that which exists in a domestic environment.
3. The term “base salary” acquires a somewhat different meaning when employees go abroad.
4. Base salary must be paid in local country currency.
5. Foreign service inducements are usually made in the form of a percentage of salary and usually amount to 30 to 60 percent of base pay.
6. The provision of a relocation allowance implies that employees should be entitled to maintain their home country living standards.
7. Many employers cover the expense of one or more trips back to the home country each year.
8. The provision of a cost-of-living allowance implies that the cost-of-living in the foreign assignment is higher than at home.
9. PCNs and TCNs do not usually receive the same treatment concerning educational expenses.
10. Pension plans are very easy to deal with from country-to-country, as national practices are similar
11. The Going Rate Approach is based on local market rates.
12. With the Going Rate Approach, if the location is in a low-pay country, the multinational usually supplements base pay with additional benefits and payments.
13. The Balance Sheet Approach links the base salary for PCNs and TCN to the salary structure of the relevant home country.
14. Generally the developed countries tend to rank as more expensive than developing countries because their wage costs are higher.
15. It is a common practice for MNEs to use a home-country balance sheet approach for TCNs except in the USA.
16. “Universal” pay systems may be preferred by corporate pay planners rather than having to deal with myriad “Local” systems.
17. Firms will never provide standardized “core” pay in the global firm.
18. Paying TCNs according to their home-country base salary can be less expensive than paying all expatriates on a PCN scale.
19. MNEs using the Balance Sheet approach to international compensation are constantly updating compensation packages for cost of living changes.
20. Obtaining up to date information on international living costs is a constant issue for multinationals.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Successfully managing compensation and benefits in a multinational context:
a. Requires knowledge of employment and taxation law, customs, environment, and employment practices of many foreign countries
b. Requires the use of both the going rate approach and the balance sheet approach to international compensation
c. Does not require familiarity with currency fluctuations
d. Does not require the use of any kind of base salary
2. In a domestic context, base salary:
a. Is the primary component of a package of allowances
b. Includes cost-of-living allowance
c. Denotes the amount of cash compensation serving as a benchmark for other compensation elements
d. Is determined by using the Going Rate Approach
3. Which of the following is the foundation block for international compensation whether the employee is a PCN or TCN?
a. Tax protection
b. Foreign service inducement/hardship premium
c. Allowances
d. Base salary
4. Which of the following involves a payment to compensate for differences in expenditures between the home country and the foreign country?
a. Home leave allowance c. Cost-of-living allowance
b. Housing allowance d. Relocation allowance
5. The provision of a housing allowance:
a. Is not often assessed on a case-by-case basis
b. Does not ever include a fixed housing allowance
c. Implies higher living standards
d. May include company-provided housing
6. The purpose of home leave allowances is to:
a. Compensate for differences in expenditures between the home country and the foreign country
b. Give expatriates the opportunity to renew family and business ties, thereby helping them to avoid adjustment problems when they are repatriated
c. Cover moving, shipping and storage charges, and temporary living expenses
d. Give employees a chance to leave their homes to tour their potential foreign assignment
7. Relocation allowances:
a. Do not usually cover temporary living expenses
b. Usually cover temporary living expenses
c. Cover discretionary items
d. Do not usually cover moving
8. MNEs generally pay allowances in order to:
a. Change the living standards of employees
b. Encourage employees to take international assignments
c. Avoid certain taxes
d. Discourage employees from taking international assignments
9. Most US PCNs typically:
a. Remain under their home country benefit plan
b. Adopt US benefit plans
c. Take advantage of both their home countries’ and the US’s benefit plans
d. Do not receive benefits, only allowances
10. Firms need to address many issues when considering benefits, including:
a. Whether or not to maintain expatriates in home-country programs
b. Whether or not to use the Going Rate Approach
c. Whether or not to use the Balance Sheet Approach
d. Whether or not expatriates should receive any social security benefits
11. Benefits that may be provided to employees include:
a. Base pay c. Vacations and special leave
b. Tax protection d. Cost-of-living allowances
12. The base salary for an international transfer is linked to the salary structure in the host country using:
a. Tax protection c. The Going Rate Approach
b. Tax equalization d. The Balance Sheet Approach
13. The Balance Sheet Approach:
a. Is the most widely used approach to international compensation
b. Relies on survey comparisons
c. Creates potential re-entry problems
d. Creates variation between expatriates of the same nationality in different countries
14. An advantage of the Going Rate Approach is that:
a. There is variation between assignments for the same employee
b. There is equality in pay with local nationals
c. There is equity between assignments
d. It results in fewer taxes
15. A disadvantage of the Balance Sheet Approach is that:
a. There can be variations between assignments for the same employee
b. There can be variations between expatriates of the same nationality in different countries
c. There may be potential re-entry problems
d. It can result in great disparities between expatriates of different nationalities and between expatriates and local nationals
16. The four categories of outlay incurred by expatriates that are incorporated in the Balance Sheet Approach are:
a. Goods and services, housing, income tax and reserve
b. Housing, base pay, goods and services and taxation
c. Taxation, housing, exchange rate and goods and services
d. Reserve, housing, taxation and evaluation cost
17. The most common taxation policy used by multinationals is:
a. Tax protection c. Tax equalization
b. Parent country national taxation d. No taxation
18. “Globals” are:
a. Expatriates c. Commuters
b. Permanent international assignees d. International travelers
19. Many multinationals respond to complexity of tax issues across countries by:
a. Ignoring all tax issues except for the Parent company
b. Retaining the services of international accounting firms
c. Having an in-house tax division to prepare all tax related forms and addresses all country tax issues
d. Leaving all tax issues up to the employee
20. A firm-external theory of job worth is influenced by:
a. Behavioral theory c. Cultural and institutional perspectives
b. Level of internationalization d. Local market conditions
21. Pay strategy may be defined in terms of a series of interlocking strategic choices on:
a. Basis of pay, units of aggregations, patterns of variation in pay and job evaluations
b. Industry/competition, size of organization, organizational structure and job evaluations
c. Employment relationships, corporate culture, basis of pay and job evaluation
d. Local market conditions, laws, basis of pay and job evaluations
22. An external, environmental norm in global pay strategy would be:
a. Traditional employment relationships c. Resource-based view of the firm
b. Labor unions and educational systems d. Institutional economics
23. Performance verses seniority is a strategic choice of pay strategy considered in:
a. Job evaluation system c. Internal equity
b. Units of aggregation d. Basis of pay
24. In a recent cost of living survey, the most expensive city to live in is:
a. London c. Zurich
b. New York d. Tokyo
25. The Top Five highest taxation countries are:
a. Netherlands, Belgium, Germany, Australia and Italy
b. USA, Netherlands, France, Germany and China
c. China, Australia, Belgium, France and Malaysia
d. Taiwan, France, Netherland, Belgium and Australia
26. International compensation is characterized by:
a. Complexity, culture and corporation c. Complexity, challenges and choices
b. Complexity, cultural challenges d. Complexity, cooperation and competition
27. Global pay practices consist of firm level decisions about:
a. Pay mix, pay level and standardization versus localization
b. Pay levels, pay mix and hierarchy versus egalitarian basis
c. Pay levels, cultural norms and pay bases
d. Pay mix, pay culture and standardization versus localization
28. International compensation is:
a. On a practical level, simpler than a domestic pay system
b. Not considered critical for most multinational enterprises
c. Still essentially equivalent to the topic of expatriate pay practices in all multinational enterpris
BUS 335 Week 9 Quiz– Strayer New
BUS 335 Week 9 Quiz– Strayer New
Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
http://budapp.net/BUS-335-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-326.htm
Quiz 8 Chapter 11 and 12
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Practical significance is the sign of a correlation coefficient. True False
2. Validity refers to the relationship between predictor and criterion scores. True False
3. A useful predictor is one where the sign of the relationship is consistent with the logic or theory behind the predictor. True False
4. Statistical significance is stated as a probability and indicates a given predictor's chances of yielding similar validity coefficients with different sets of applicants. True False
5. A significance level of p<0.05 means that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is not. True False
6. In general, the greater the correlation of a given predictor with other predictors of a criterion, the more useful the predictor will be. True False
7. The usefulness of a predictor is determined by the value it adds to the prediction of job success above and beyond the forecasting powers of other available predictors. True False
8. There are no cases in which a predictor has high validity and high adverse impact. True False
9. All other things being equal, if a selection specialist must decide between two predictors, the one that causes the least adverse impact would be the best choice. True False
10. Utility refers to the expected gains to be derived from using a predictor. True False
11. The selection ratio is the number of people hired divided by the number of applicants, and it is desirable that this ratio be high. True False
12. It is desirable that the denominator of a selection ratio be small. True False
13. The base rate is the number of hirees divided by the number of employees. True False
14. When deciding whether or not to use a new predictor, the validity coefficient, the base rate, and the selection ratio should be considered in combination, not independently. True False
15. The most fundamental concern regarding utility analysis is that it lacks realism. True False
16. If you are using the "economic gains formula," and you have just increased the validity of your selection procedures with no change in cost, your economic gain value should increase. True False
17. The most difficult factor in the economic gain formula to estimate is "cost per applicant". True False
18. Utility analysis models do not take factors like EEO/AA concerns into account. True False
19. Research suggests that managers prefer the results of utility analysis to the presentation of simple validity coefficients. True False
20. Utility decreases as the number of valid predictors used in the selection process increases. True False
21. If you are evaluating the usefulness of a given predictor in predicting job success, and you are interested in the value the predictor adds to the prediction of job success, you want to know the predictor's ________. A. validity coefficient B. practical significance C. sign D. statistical significance
22. When HR specialists state that a new predictor "adds value" to the prediction of job success, they mean that _____. A. the predictor provides economic benefit to prediction B. the predictor has a high validity coefficient C. the predictor adds to the prediction of job success over and beyond the forecasting powers of current predictors D. the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, thus increasing efficiency
23. A significance level of p<0.05 in a validity study means _________. A. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is not B. that there are 5 chances in 100 of concluding that there is not a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is C. that the practical significance of the observed relationship is very low D. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 that a predictor has adverse impact
24. Validity refers to __________. A. the number of individuals hired by a predictor B. the number of individuals hired divided by the number of applicants C. the relationship between predictor and criterion scores D. the inverse of the adverse impact ratio
25. If an HR specialist is assessing the usefulness of predictors in forecasting job success, and it is noted that a given predictor has both high validity and high adverse impact, the HR specialist should conclude ___________. A. this can never happen and the method of calculating validity must be incorrect B. this is a common circumstance and the predictor should be used C. if the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, this will compensate for adverse impact D. legal problems could result and alternative predictors should be sought
26. Under which circumstances is "hiring success gain" likely to be optimal? A. Low selection ratio, low base rate, high validity B. High selection ratio, high base rate, high validity C. High selection ratio, low base rate, high validity D. High selection ratio, low base rate, low validity
27. Which of the following is the most difficult to estimate term in the economic gain formula? A. Average tenure of employees. B. Number of applicants. C. Dollar value of job performance. D. Cost per applicant.
28. Taylor-Russell tables are an effective decision making tool in that they ________. A. allow for calculating selection ratios B. enable HR specialists to calculate utility ratios C. allow simultaneous consideration of a predictor's base rate, selection ratio, and validity D. help to increase validity coefficients to more acceptable levels
29. Economic gain formulas provide the HR specialist with an estimate of ______. A. the economic gain derived from using a predictor versus random selection B. the economic gain from using random selection C. the economic gain of the standard deviation of job performance D. the economic gain of the validity coefficient
30. A compensatory approach to selection decisions means that applicants must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process. True False
31. The clinical prediction method of determining an applicant's score on a job assessment instrument relies on adding the individual predictor scores together to arrive at the applicant's total score. True False
32. The "unit weighting" method of determining the score of a job applicant on an assessment instrument considers the relative importance of each predictor. True False
33. Multiple regression will be more precise than unit weighting if there is a small number of predictors, low correlations between predictors, and a large sample. True False
34. The multiple hurdles method of setting a passing score for a job predictor would be a cost efficient method for making decisions about hiring. True False
35. The _________ approach means that selection decisions means that scores on one predictor can make up for low scores on another. A. multiple hurdles B. Markov process C. compensatory model D. none of the above
36. The _________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on the expert judgment of the manager. A. multiple regression B. clinical prediction C. unit weighting D. none of the above
37. The _________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on assigning weights by statistical procedures and then adding predictor scores together. A. multiple regression B. clinical prediction C. unit weighting D. none of the above
38. The _________ approach means that an applicant must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process. A. multiple hurdles B. Markov process C. compensatory model D. none of the above
39. In establishing procedures for setting cutoff scores, organizations should stress the job-relatedness of the assessment procedure and de-emphasize validity. True False
40. In assessing cutoff scores, a "false negative" is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired. True False
41. In assessing cutoff scores, a "false positive" is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired. True False
42. The minimum competency method involves setting the cut score on the basis of the minimum qualifications deemed necessary to perform a job. True False
43. In top down hiring, all individuals who are above a minimum competency point are hired. True False
44. There is little evidence that individuals who perceive themselves to be overqualified are less satisfied or have higher intentions to turnover. True False
45. The law prohibits using different norms for test scores of minority and majority groups. True False
46. Banding is a procedure whereby applicants who score in different score ranges or bands are considered to have scored equivalently. True False
47. Applicants react positively when banding is associated with affirmative action. True False
48. An applicant who is hired but does not perform successfully is a ______________. A. true positive B. false positive C. true negative D. false negative
49. An applicant who is not hired but who would have performed successfully if hired is a ______________. A. true positive B. false positive C. true negative D. false negative
50. If a cutoff score is lowered, the effect of this on hiring results is likely to be ______________. A. fewer false negatives only B. both fewer false negatives and more true positives C. fewer false negatives and fewer false positives D. more false negatives a
Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
http://budapp.net/BUS-335-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-326.htm
Quiz 8 Chapter 11 and 12
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Practical significance is the sign of a correlation coefficient. True False
2. Validity refers to the relationship between predictor and criterion scores. True False
3. A useful predictor is one where the sign of the relationship is consistent with the logic or theory behind the predictor. True False
4. Statistical significance is stated as a probability and indicates a given predictor's chances of yielding similar validity coefficients with different sets of applicants. True False
5. A significance level of p<0.05 means that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is not. True False
6. In general, the greater the correlation of a given predictor with other predictors of a criterion, the more useful the predictor will be. True False
7. The usefulness of a predictor is determined by the value it adds to the prediction of job success above and beyond the forecasting powers of other available predictors. True False
8. There are no cases in which a predictor has high validity and high adverse impact. True False
9. All other things being equal, if a selection specialist must decide between two predictors, the one that causes the least adverse impact would be the best choice. True False
10. Utility refers to the expected gains to be derived from using a predictor. True False
11. The selection ratio is the number of people hired divided by the number of applicants, and it is desirable that this ratio be high. True False
12. It is desirable that the denominator of a selection ratio be small. True False
13. The base rate is the number of hirees divided by the number of employees. True False
14. When deciding whether or not to use a new predictor, the validity coefficient, the base rate, and the selection ratio should be considered in combination, not independently. True False
15. The most fundamental concern regarding utility analysis is that it lacks realism. True False
16. If you are using the "economic gains formula," and you have just increased the validity of your selection procedures with no change in cost, your economic gain value should increase. True False
17. The most difficult factor in the economic gain formula to estimate is "cost per applicant". True False
18. Utility analysis models do not take factors like EEO/AA concerns into account. True False
19. Research suggests that managers prefer the results of utility analysis to the presentation of simple validity coefficients. True False
20. Utility decreases as the number of valid predictors used in the selection process increases. True False
21. If you are evaluating the usefulness of a given predictor in predicting job success, and you are interested in the value the predictor adds to the prediction of job success, you want to know the predictor's ________. A. validity coefficient B. practical significance C. sign D. statistical significance
22. When HR specialists state that a new predictor "adds value" to the prediction of job success, they mean that _____. A. the predictor provides economic benefit to prediction B. the predictor has a high validity coefficient C. the predictor adds to the prediction of job success over and beyond the forecasting powers of current predictors D. the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, thus increasing efficiency
23. A significance level of p<0.05 in a validity study means _________. A. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is not B. that there are 5 chances in 100 of concluding that there is not a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is C. that the practical significance of the observed relationship is very low D. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 that a predictor has adverse impact
24. Validity refers to __________. A. the number of individuals hired by a predictor B. the number of individuals hired divided by the number of applicants C. the relationship between predictor and criterion scores D. the inverse of the adverse impact ratio
25. If an HR specialist is assessing the usefulness of predictors in forecasting job success, and it is noted that a given predictor has both high validity and high adverse impact, the HR specialist should conclude ___________. A. this can never happen and the method of calculating validity must be incorrect B. this is a common circumstance and the predictor should be used C. if the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, this will compensate for adverse impact D. legal problems could result and alternative predictors should be sought
26. Under which circumstances is "hiring success gain" likely to be optimal? A. Low selection ratio, low base rate, high validity B. High selection ratio, high base rate, high validity C. High selection ratio, low base rate, high validity D. High selection ratio, low base rate, low validity
27. Which of the following is the most difficult to estimate term in the economic gain formula? A. Average tenure of employees. B. Number of applicants. C. Dollar value of job performance. D. Cost per applicant.
28. Taylor-Russell tables are an effective decision making tool in that they ________. A. allow for calculating selection ratios B. enable HR specialists to calculate utility ratios C. allow simultaneous consideration of a predictor's base rate, selection ratio, and validity D. help to increase validity coefficients to more acceptable levels
29. Economic gain formulas provide the HR specialist with an estimate of ______. A. the economic gain derived from using a predictor versus random selection B. the economic gain from using random selection C. the economic gain of the standard deviation of job performance D. the economic gain of the validity coefficient
30. A compensatory approach to selection decisions means that applicants must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process. True False
31. The clinical prediction method of determining an applicant's score on a job assessment instrument relies on adding the individual predictor scores together to arrive at the applicant's total score. True False
32. The "unit weighting" method of determining the score of a job applicant on an assessment instrument considers the relative importance of each predictor. True False
33. Multiple regression will be more precise than unit weighting if there is a small number of predictors, low correlations between predictors, and a large sample. True False
34. The multiple hurdles method of setting a passing score for a job predictor would be a cost efficient method for making decisions about hiring. True False
35. The _________ approach means that selection decisions means that scores on one predictor can make up for low scores on another. A. multiple hurdles B. Markov process C. compensatory model D. none of the above
36. The _________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on the expert judgment of the manager. A. multiple regression B. clinical prediction C. unit weighting D. none of the above
37. The _________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on assigning weights by statistical procedures and then adding predictor scores together. A. multiple regression B. clinical prediction C. unit weighting D. none of the above
38. The _________ approach means that an applicant must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process. A. multiple hurdles B. Markov process C. compensatory model D. none of the above
39. In establishing procedures for setting cutoff scores, organizations should stress the job-relatedness of the assessment procedure and de-emphasize validity. True False
40. In assessing cutoff scores, a "false negative" is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired. True False
41. In assessing cutoff scores, a "false positive" is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired. True False
42. The minimum competency method involves setting the cut score on the basis of the minimum qualifications deemed necessary to perform a job. True False
43. In top down hiring, all individuals who are above a minimum competency point are hired. True False
44. There is little evidence that individuals who perceive themselves to be overqualified are less satisfied or have higher intentions to turnover. True False
45. The law prohibits using different norms for test scores of minority and majority groups. True False
46. Banding is a procedure whereby applicants who score in different score ranges or bands are considered to have scored equivalently. True False
47. Applicants react positively when banding is associated with affirmative action. True False
48. An applicant who is hired but does not perform successfully is a ______________. A. true positive B. false positive C. true negative D. false negative
49. An applicant who is not hired but who would have performed successfully if hired is a ______________. A. true positive B. false positive C. true negative D. false negative
50. If a cutoff score is lowered, the effect of this on hiring results is likely to be ______________. A. fewer false negatives only B. both fewer false negatives and more true positives C. fewer false negatives and fewer false positives D. more false negatives a
ECO 410 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer
ECO 410 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer
Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
http://budapp.net/ECO-410-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-376.htm
Quiz 8 Chapter 15 and 16
Multinational Tax Management
15.1 Tax Principles
Multiple Choice
1) The issue of ethics in the reporting of income and the payment of taxes is a considerable one. The authors state that most MNEs operating in foreign countries tend to follow the general principle of:
A) "when in Rome, do as the Romans do."
B) full disclosure to the tax authorities.
C) maintain a competitive playing field by cheating as much as the local competition, no more, no less.
D) none of the above
2) Which of the following is an unlikely objective of U.S. government policy for the taxation of foreign MNEs?
A) to raise revenues
B) to provide an incentive for U.S. private investment in developing countries
C) to improve the U.S. balance of payments
D) All of the above are objectives.
3) A ________ tax policy is one that has no impact on private decision-making, while a ________ policy is designed to encourage specific behavior.
A) flat; tax incentive
B) neutral; flat
C) neutral; tax incentive
D) none of the above
4) Which of the following is NOT an example of a tax incentive policy?
A) The federal government gives a tax credit to MNEs that make domestic capital improvements but not foreign capital improvements.
B) Corporations are allowed to take a direct tax credit for each dollar of matching donations they make to institutions of higher education.
C) A tax law is passed that makes interest on property non tax-deductible, but interest payments on durable goods are.
D) All are examples of a tax incentive policy.
5) Toyota Motor Company operates in many different countries and pays taxes at many different rates. However, they always pay the same rate as their local competitors. Toyota Motor Company is operating in an environment of ________ tax policy.
A) domestic neutrality
B) foreign neutrality
C) territorial approach
D) none of the above
6) The United States taxes the domestic and remitted foreign earnings of U.S. based MNEs no matter where the earnings occurred. This is an example of a/an ________ approach to levying taxes.
A) worldwide
B) territorial
C) neutral
D) equitable
7) The United States taxes all earnings on U.S. soil by both domestic and foreign firms. This is an example of a ________ approach to levying taxes.
A) worldwide
B) neutral
C) territorial
D) none of the above
8) Bacon Signs Inc. is based in a country with a territorial approach to taxation but generates 100% of its income in a country with a worldwide approach to taxation. The tax rate in the country of incorporation is 25%, and the tax rate in the country where they earn their income is 50%. In theory, and barring any special provisions in the tax codes of either country, Bacon should pay taxes at a rate of:
A) 75%.
B) 62.5%.
C) 0%.
D) 50%.
9) The territorial approach to taxation policy is also termed the ________ approach.
A) source
B) ethical
C) greedy
D) location
10) A tax that is effectively a sales tax at each stage of production is defined as a/an ________ tax.
A) flat
B) equitable
C) value-added tax
D) none of the above
11) What is the total value of taxes paid in the following example if the value added tax is 10%? A farmer raises wheat that he sells for $1.50 to the grain company. The grain company sells to the processor for $2.00 per bushel. The processor turns the wheat into a breakfast cereal and wholesales it for $3.00 per bushel. The retailer sells the cereal for $4.00 per bushel.
A) $0.15
B) $0.20
C) $0.30
D) $0.40
TABLE 15.1
Use the information to answer following question(s).
BayArea Designs Inc., located in Northern California, has two international subsidiaries, one located in the Ukraine, the other in Korea. Consider the information below to answer the next several questions.
12) Refer to Table 15.1. If BayArea pays out 50% of its earnings from each subsidiary, what are the additional U.S. taxes due on the foreign sourced income from the Ukraine and Korea respectively.
A) Ukraine = $0; Korea = ($30,000)
B) Ukraine = $100,000; Korea = $0
C) Ukraine = $0; Korea = $66,250
D) none of the above
13) Refer to Table 15.1. The additional U.S. taxes due on the repatriation of income from the Ukraine to the United States, alone, assuming a 50% payout rate, is:
A) excess foreign tax credits of $110,000.
B) additional U.S. taxes due of $97,000.
C) additional U.S. taxes due of $36,500.
D) excess foreign tax credits of $18,500.
14) Refer to Table 15.1. How much in additional U.S. taxes would be due if BayArea averaged the tax credits and liabilities of the two foreign units, assuming a 50% payout rate from each?
A) $3,750
B) $13,750
C) $2,500
D) $0
15) Refer to Table 15.1. If BayArea set the payout rate from the Ukraine subsidiary at 25%, how should BayArea set the payout rate of the Korean subsidiary (approximately) to more efficiently manage its total foreign tax bill?
A) 28.5%
B) 24.5%
C) 42.6%
D) 82.3%
16) Refer to Table 15.1. What is the minimum effective tax rate that BayArea can achieve on its foreign-sourced income?
A) 26%
B) 35%
C) 40%
D) 0%
17) Tax-haven subsidiaries are typically established in a country that can meet the following requirements:
A) a low tax on foreign investment or sales income earned by resident corporations and a low dividend withholding tax on dividends paid to the parent firm.
B) the facilities to support financial services, for example, good communications, professional qualified office workers, and reputable banking services.
C) a stable government that encourages the establishment of foreign-owned financial and service facilities within its borders.
D) all of the above
18) A tax that is a form of social redistribution of income is defined as a/an ________ tax.
A) un-American
B) transfer
C) flat
D) none of the above
19) A ________ is a direct reduction of taxes whereas a ________ reduces the taxable income before taxes.
A) foreign tax credit; domestic tax credit
B) tax deduction; tax credit
C) tax credit; tax deduction
D) none of the above
Instruction 15.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).
Green Valley Exporters USA has $100,000 of before tax foreign income. The host country has a corporate income tax rate of 25% and the U.S. has a corporate income tax rate of 35%.
20) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. has no bilateral trade agreement with the host country, what is the total amount of income taxes Green Valley Exporters will pay?
A) $25,000
B) $35,000
C) $51,250
D) $60,000
21) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. has a bilateral trade agreement with the host country that calls for the total tax paid to be equal to the maximum amount that could be paid in the highest taxing country, what is the total amount of income taxes Green Valley Exporters will pay to the host country, and how much will they pay in U.S income taxes on the foreign earned income?
A) $25,000; $10,000
B) $25,000; $26,250
C) $35,000; $0
D) none of the above
22) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. treated the taxes paid on income earned in the host country as a tax-deductible expense, then Green Valley's total U.S. corporate tax on the foreign earnings would be:
A) $10,000.
B) $26,250.
C) $35,000.
D) $51,250.
23) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. treated the taxes paid on income earned in the host country as a tax-credit, then Green Valley's total U.S. corporate tax on the foreign earnings would be:
A) $51,250.
B) $35,000.
C) $26,250.
D) $10,000.
24) Tax treaties typically result in ________ between the two countries in question.
A) lower property taxes for U.S. citizens overseas
B) elimination of differential tax rates
C) increased double taxation
D) reduced withholding tax rates
25) Transfer pricing is a strategy that may be used by MNEs to:
A) reduce consolidated corporate income taxes.
B) partially finance a subsidiary in another country.
C) transfer funds from a subsidiary to the parent corporation.
D) all of the above
26) ________ is the pricing of goods, services, and technology between related companies.
A) Among pricing
B) Retail pricing
C) Transfer pricing
D) Wholesale pricing
True/False
1) The primary objective of multinational tax planning is to minimize the firm's worldwide tax burden.
2) A country CANNOT have both a territorial and a worldwide approach as a national tax policy.
3) Tax treaties generally have the effect of increasing the withholding taxes between the countries that are negotiating the treaties.
4) A value-added tax has gained widespread usage in Western Europe, Canada, and parts of Latin America.
5) All indications are that the value-added tax will soon be the dominant form of taxation in the U.S.
6) Among the G7 nations, the U.S. has a below average corporate income tax rate that makes it attractive for other countries to invest in the U.S.
7) In the mid 1980s the U.S. led the way to higher corporate income tax rates worldwide. Today, most of the G7 nations have surpassed the U.S. and have higher corporate income tax rates than the U.S.
8) The ideal tax should not only raise revenue efficiently but also have as few negative effects on economic behavior as possible.
9) The worldwide approach, also referred to as the residential or national approach to tax policy, levies taxes on the income earned by firms that are incorporated in the host country, regardless of where the income was earned (domestically or abroad).
10) The territorial approach, also referred to as the source approach to tax policy, levies taxes on the income earned by firms that are incorporated in the host country, regardless of where the income was earned (domestically or abroad).
Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
http://budapp.net/ECO-410-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-376.htm
Quiz 8 Chapter 15 and 16
Multinational Tax Management
15.1 Tax Principles
Multiple Choice
1) The issue of ethics in the reporting of income and the payment of taxes is a considerable one. The authors state that most MNEs operating in foreign countries tend to follow the general principle of:
A) "when in Rome, do as the Romans do."
B) full disclosure to the tax authorities.
C) maintain a competitive playing field by cheating as much as the local competition, no more, no less.
D) none of the above
2) Which of the following is an unlikely objective of U.S. government policy for the taxation of foreign MNEs?
A) to raise revenues
B) to provide an incentive for U.S. private investment in developing countries
C) to improve the U.S. balance of payments
D) All of the above are objectives.
3) A ________ tax policy is one that has no impact on private decision-making, while a ________ policy is designed to encourage specific behavior.
A) flat; tax incentive
B) neutral; flat
C) neutral; tax incentive
D) none of the above
4) Which of the following is NOT an example of a tax incentive policy?
A) The federal government gives a tax credit to MNEs that make domestic capital improvements but not foreign capital improvements.
B) Corporations are allowed to take a direct tax credit for each dollar of matching donations they make to institutions of higher education.
C) A tax law is passed that makes interest on property non tax-deductible, but interest payments on durable goods are.
D) All are examples of a tax incentive policy.
5) Toyota Motor Company operates in many different countries and pays taxes at many different rates. However, they always pay the same rate as their local competitors. Toyota Motor Company is operating in an environment of ________ tax policy.
A) domestic neutrality
B) foreign neutrality
C) territorial approach
D) none of the above
6) The United States taxes the domestic and remitted foreign earnings of U.S. based MNEs no matter where the earnings occurred. This is an example of a/an ________ approach to levying taxes.
A) worldwide
B) territorial
C) neutral
D) equitable
7) The United States taxes all earnings on U.S. soil by both domestic and foreign firms. This is an example of a ________ approach to levying taxes.
A) worldwide
B) neutral
C) territorial
D) none of the above
8) Bacon Signs Inc. is based in a country with a territorial approach to taxation but generates 100% of its income in a country with a worldwide approach to taxation. The tax rate in the country of incorporation is 25%, and the tax rate in the country where they earn their income is 50%. In theory, and barring any special provisions in the tax codes of either country, Bacon should pay taxes at a rate of:
A) 75%.
B) 62.5%.
C) 0%.
D) 50%.
9) The territorial approach to taxation policy is also termed the ________ approach.
A) source
B) ethical
C) greedy
D) location
10) A tax that is effectively a sales tax at each stage of production is defined as a/an ________ tax.
A) flat
B) equitable
C) value-added tax
D) none of the above
11) What is the total value of taxes paid in the following example if the value added tax is 10%? A farmer raises wheat that he sells for $1.50 to the grain company. The grain company sells to the processor for $2.00 per bushel. The processor turns the wheat into a breakfast cereal and wholesales it for $3.00 per bushel. The retailer sells the cereal for $4.00 per bushel.
A) $0.15
B) $0.20
C) $0.30
D) $0.40
TABLE 15.1
Use the information to answer following question(s).
BayArea Designs Inc., located in Northern California, has two international subsidiaries, one located in the Ukraine, the other in Korea. Consider the information below to answer the next several questions.
12) Refer to Table 15.1. If BayArea pays out 50% of its earnings from each subsidiary, what are the additional U.S. taxes due on the foreign sourced income from the Ukraine and Korea respectively.
A) Ukraine = $0; Korea = ($30,000)
B) Ukraine = $100,000; Korea = $0
C) Ukraine = $0; Korea = $66,250
D) none of the above
13) Refer to Table 15.1. The additional U.S. taxes due on the repatriation of income from the Ukraine to the United States, alone, assuming a 50% payout rate, is:
A) excess foreign tax credits of $110,000.
B) additional U.S. taxes due of $97,000.
C) additional U.S. taxes due of $36,500.
D) excess foreign tax credits of $18,500.
14) Refer to Table 15.1. How much in additional U.S. taxes would be due if BayArea averaged the tax credits and liabilities of the two foreign units, assuming a 50% payout rate from each?
A) $3,750
B) $13,750
C) $2,500
D) $0
15) Refer to Table 15.1. If BayArea set the payout rate from the Ukraine subsidiary at 25%, how should BayArea set the payout rate of the Korean subsidiary (approximately) to more efficiently manage its total foreign tax bill?
A) 28.5%
B) 24.5%
C) 42.6%
D) 82.3%
16) Refer to Table 15.1. What is the minimum effective tax rate that BayArea can achieve on its foreign-sourced income?
A) 26%
B) 35%
C) 40%
D) 0%
17) Tax-haven subsidiaries are typically established in a country that can meet the following requirements:
A) a low tax on foreign investment or sales income earned by resident corporations and a low dividend withholding tax on dividends paid to the parent firm.
B) the facilities to support financial services, for example, good communications, professional qualified office workers, and reputable banking services.
C) a stable government that encourages the establishment of foreign-owned financial and service facilities within its borders.
D) all of the above
18) A tax that is a form of social redistribution of income is defined as a/an ________ tax.
A) un-American
B) transfer
C) flat
D) none of the above
19) A ________ is a direct reduction of taxes whereas a ________ reduces the taxable income before taxes.
A) foreign tax credit; domestic tax credit
B) tax deduction; tax credit
C) tax credit; tax deduction
D) none of the above
Instruction 15.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).
Green Valley Exporters USA has $100,000 of before tax foreign income. The host country has a corporate income tax rate of 25% and the U.S. has a corporate income tax rate of 35%.
20) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. has no bilateral trade agreement with the host country, what is the total amount of income taxes Green Valley Exporters will pay?
A) $25,000
B) $35,000
C) $51,250
D) $60,000
21) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. has a bilateral trade agreement with the host country that calls for the total tax paid to be equal to the maximum amount that could be paid in the highest taxing country, what is the total amount of income taxes Green Valley Exporters will pay to the host country, and how much will they pay in U.S income taxes on the foreign earned income?
A) $25,000; $10,000
B) $25,000; $26,250
C) $35,000; $0
D) none of the above
22) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. treated the taxes paid on income earned in the host country as a tax-deductible expense, then Green Valley's total U.S. corporate tax on the foreign earnings would be:
A) $10,000.
B) $26,250.
C) $35,000.
D) $51,250.
23) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. treated the taxes paid on income earned in the host country as a tax-credit, then Green Valley's total U.S. corporate tax on the foreign earnings would be:
A) $51,250.
B) $35,000.
C) $26,250.
D) $10,000.
24) Tax treaties typically result in ________ between the two countries in question.
A) lower property taxes for U.S. citizens overseas
B) elimination of differential tax rates
C) increased double taxation
D) reduced withholding tax rates
25) Transfer pricing is a strategy that may be used by MNEs to:
A) reduce consolidated corporate income taxes.
B) partially finance a subsidiary in another country.
C) transfer funds from a subsidiary to the parent corporation.
D) all of the above
26) ________ is the pricing of goods, services, and technology between related companies.
A) Among pricing
B) Retail pricing
C) Transfer pricing
D) Wholesale pricing
True/False
1) The primary objective of multinational tax planning is to minimize the firm's worldwide tax burden.
2) A country CANNOT have both a territorial and a worldwide approach as a national tax policy.
3) Tax treaties generally have the effect of increasing the withholding taxes between the countries that are negotiating the treaties.
4) A value-added tax has gained widespread usage in Western Europe, Canada, and parts of Latin America.
5) All indications are that the value-added tax will soon be the dominant form of taxation in the U.S.
6) Among the G7 nations, the U.S. has a below average corporate income tax rate that makes it attractive for other countries to invest in the U.S.
7) In the mid 1980s the U.S. led the way to higher corporate income tax rates worldwide. Today, most of the G7 nations have surpassed the U.S. and have higher corporate income tax rates than the U.S.
8) The ideal tax should not only raise revenue efficiently but also have as few negative effects on economic behavior as possible.
9) The worldwide approach, also referred to as the residential or national approach to tax policy, levies taxes on the income earned by firms that are incorporated in the host country, regardless of where the income was earned (domestically or abroad).
10) The territorial approach, also referred to as the source approach to tax policy, levies taxes on the income earned by firms that are incorporated in the host country, regardless of where the income was earned (domestically or abroad).
Subscribe to:
Comments (Atom)